In you section for Chlamydial, it is stated that:

"In children, chlamydia may be a possible sign of sexual abuse."

What does this mean exactly? In what cases of a child having Chlamydia would it not be a sign of sexual abuse? Is there a way for a child (or anyone for that matter) to be exposed to Chlamydia without some form of sexual contact (ie. touching, sharing clothing, ect)?

I have seen reports that it can be spread from Hand to Eye contact...what does that mean exactly? Does that mean if a person who has Chlamydia touches their eye, and then touches another persons penis/vagina it could be spread that way? Or does it mean something else?

Hey JonCoen,

Medicine is not an exact science. You may have noticed that doctors and clinicians never use absolutes because every once in awhile, people get infections that cannot be fully explained.

So, we use the word "possibly" to cover those oddball cases.

Dharma

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ASHA Moderator

Can you be anymore specific with your answer?

Do you have any examples or anything that may suggest someone getting chlamydia may not be a sign of sexual abuse in a child?

How about the examples I listed...are they plausible?

Also, can you be more specific on what "hand to eye" contact means in reference to transmitting chlamydia?

JonCoen,

It would be very rare for anybody to get chlamydia through the examples you listed. Plausible? Possibly. But it's plausible I could go outside and get hit by a bus today. Because medicine is not an exact science, I can't tell you with 100% certainty that one could not get it by hand to eye. I can tell you that we don't see cases of people becoming infected that way.

I hope this helps.

Dharma

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ASHA Moderator