It is really confusing and all in all, just a theory to me. What does it mean to you?

Have I cleared the HPV "infection" b/c the cells on my cervix went back to normal and I don't have any warts. However, that doesn't mean that I don't have the virus anymore or does it? Technically, I could still pass it to someone else who could then display symptoms such as warts, rite? Then they would have an HPV Infection, when I didn't have an "infection."

What does this phrase really mean?

I believe this is exactly how I contracted this STI. The guy had it, knew it, got rid of the warts and figured he "cleared the infection." Told me he had nothing and then gave it to me.

I'm afraid of the signal this phrase is sending to people. HPV is already confusing, how can we clearly define what this means?

Go to www.ashastd.org/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=394 for some of our discussions on this subject.

It's difficult, to be sure. Researchers know that most HPV infections that are detected on very sensitive DNA tests will eventually become undetectable, usually within 6-24 months. What is less clear is what exactly does this mean: Is the virus completely eradicated, or simply in a much reduced, latent state? And can it be transmitted to a partner?

These questions haven't been answered yet. The prevailing opinion of the experts with whom we've worked over the years is, well, the risks of transmission probably diminish over time and likely become remote, but no one can say for sure just when this might happen with an individual.

Hopefully (and almost certainly) we'll know more one day, but for now the best we can say is it looks pretty certain the immune system can more or less clear HPV in almost all cases.

Hope this helps.

Best,
Fredo

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