I hope someone can help me understand this better. I am a 28 year old female. I had an abnormal pap smear indicating HPV a few months ago, then a colonoscopy and soon will be having a leep. I never had any other symptoms or any indication I had HPV. My question is about me transmitting the virus to a man. I had an affair with a man who has been married for 15 years. I was intimate with him apparently while I had an active HPV infection (in between my pap smear and the diagnosis). If I gave it to him can he now transmit it to his wife? what are the chances of that, and then what are the chances of the HPV causing her to have an active infection. I am so confused about what percentage of people have HPV. On one message board I saw that one estimate is over 75% of the population? If the wife does get HPV will she know he was having an affair? Can it lay dormant in someone for 15 years? Thank you

I just re-read my question and I think I need to clarify a few things. I meant colposcopy, not colonoscopy. I do not know what strain of HPV I have, but I have never had genital warts. I am scheduled for the LEEP because I have high risk something? Also, we did not use condoms or other protection during sex. thanks again for any advice you can give....

Hello and thanks for your post. HPV infections are almost universal (with 75% or so of sexually active Americans estimated to have, or have had, genital HPV at some point). Most of these infections are harmless and clear on their own.

There's no formula that says the likelihood your partner contracted HPV from you and, if he did, might transmit to someone else. His wife should have regular Pap tests, though, even without taking your scenario into account. HPV can be detected even years after someone may have contracted it, so it's usually hard to tie a current HPV diagnosis to a specific time-frame or partner.

Let us know how you're doing, if you don't mind. Feel free to post again anytime.

Best,
Fredo

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