hi
i am writing to ask a question i am a 27yr old, female and have GW at this time and sorry for being graphic but was for want of a better word fooling around with this boy when his penis touched a section of the warts now he had lube on so just wondering if it means that he now has it now i realise he may already have been exposed previous as he had other sexual partners.
i spoke to a nurse about this and she said with the lube present it didnt reallly have full skin to skin contact but i was very strict with that area but with a lapse of concentration this happened....(wont happen again!!) sorry for all the waffle but from reading previous posts you have really helped me understand this topic so much more than my own doctor... but suppose looking for second opinion or what risk factor low or high he has contracted i know u cant say for certain but i am so sick to my stomach with worry cant eat properly and its on my mind constant, going over and over it we live in small community so really worried about it... i am headin for a hospital apt tomorrow so not looking forward to it so nerves!!
i also want to say thank u so much for this forum u dont realise how much it has helped me i was freaking out so badly until i found this and has helped me.. a big thank you

Hi,

Yeah, it's really hard to say what the likelihood is that someone would contract HPV from a given exposure. It certainly isn't a given that he would now have it; you tend to assume partners in an on-going relationship will eventually share the virus, but not necessarily after a single exposure. I think, too, that while touching and rubbing of genitals can transmit HPV, the friction of intercourse tends to make it more likely due to causing abrasions on the skin.

Keep in mind that even though most people have one or more HPV infections in their lifetimes, they rarely have any noticeable symptoms and the immune system typically clears the virus naturally.

Hope this helps.

Best,
Fredo

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