We've talked about this before but I can't seem to find a straight answer despite extensive research both on the internet and at the library.

This question is regarding LGV which as we previously discussed is rare. However, there were alerts about an outbreak among men who have sex with men back in 2003-2005 time frame. However, very little updating since then on CDC, SF City Clinic, etc. As I engaged in M2M sex on one occasion back in October 2007, that is prompting my concern.

As a reminder I engaged in PROTECTED receptive anal sex (he penetrated me with a condom on) WITHOUT condom breakage. We also engaged in mutual UNPROTECTED oral sex and while I ejaculated in his mouth he did not ejaculate in mine.

I had concerns that the Chlamydia testing was done too soon when I was first examined in late October and early November 2007. Your advice was the testing was valid then but that if I was concerned I could get retested, which I did in April 2008.

When the nurse practitioner examined me and we discussed the other testing I had had she agreed the only thing that might be problematic was tthe Chlamydia test may have been too early although unlikely it was a false negative. So we tested my URINE again for Chlamydia which came back negative. Good urethral Chlamydia was off the table.

She also said if I had LGV from that October encounter I would know it by now. In our last correspondence, you said "Second thing first. You have to be infected with chlamydia to get Lymphogranuloma Venereum which is caused by three different subtypes chlamydia trachomatis and, as you know, it's pretty rare anyway."

Just wanted to confirm does a NEGATIVE URINE TEST for Chlamydia rule out LGV or is it possible to have it rectally and systemically as in LGV and still have the urine test for Chlamydia come back negative?

Also if one is infected with LGV when do symptoms appear? Conversely, when can one rule out LGV infection in the absence of symptoms? For example, I haven't had any symptoms in X months therefore something would have shown up by now so I'm not infected.

Thanks
needadvice

Needadvice,

Yes, we talked about this extensively on another thread. It's rare to begin with and we never see cases where people get infected that that kind of exposure (receiving oral sex). Have you asked to be tested for this again yet? As said earlier, if the test is negative now, you can rule it out and move forward.

If this has become overwhelming for you and you can't seem to concentrate on other things, I would encourage you to talk to a counselor about it.

Dharma

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