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Hi, I have been trying to get answers to this but it has not been easy to get a hold of anyone or find very much info on this. My question is, if I have had oral sex with a man who has been treated for anal warts and has not had an out break in over a year, should I be worried about getting anything? I am also a man, of which I had done nothing to him sexually. We kissed and he did the oral sex to me. I also did nothing with his anus. He also informed me that he had been tested in March for HIV and said he was negative, but should I be worried about any other diseases if the only contact we had was through oral sex? I recognized I could be at risk for anal warts, but he assures me that I will not get them because he has been treated for them and has not had an outbreak since. Is this correct? Also if he is clean, does that mean even if he did give me anal warts, is testing a need for me, because the testing would only be for HIV and I don't believe a blood test could determine if I have anal warts? Please give me any information in regards to this. I am not opposed to getting tested, but I see no reason to get tested if nothing could be found through the blood test. This is the first person I have ever been with sexually, and I am extremely nervous. My only hope is that by the actions we did, were not risky enough to give me anything other than the warts, or anything for that matter. I really appreciate you taking the time to read this and take the time to respond to this. You have no idea how much I will appreciate your responses. Hope to hear from you soon!
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