Hi

Recently had some pimple-like bumps on my penis, and GF had a lesion right about the same time. I went to planned parenthood to get looked at, doc says "definitely not herpes" (these people know nothing), but GF got blood test and lesion culture.

Her results were type 1 - 2.04, type 2 - 0.27. She has never had a cold sore. Her doc didn't have a type from the lesion culture. Does she need to get another blood test in 4 months to be sure she doesn't have type 2?

I got tested after this and just found out my results were type 1 - 3.0, type 2 - 3.08

I expected my type 1 as I have had cold sores for many years but the type 2 result was pretty unexpected. I have never had a genital outbreak before what i mentioned above.

How long is it possible I've had this without symptoms? Years? She has been my only partner in the last 6 months.

With her type 2 number being so low does that mean there is no way I got it from her? I'm not looking to blame anyone, just trying to sort out confusion.

Is it totally random that we both had an outbreak at the same time? Hers being type 1 and mine being type 2? Or is possible her outbreak was type 2 and she hasn't had it long enough to get a strong positive test result? I'm mortified at the thought of having given it to her.

Do you know what the approximate cost of daily suppressive therapy is without insurance?

If I've had it for such a long time without outbreaks does this mean I have hope of having very few future outbreaks? I realize outbreaks can be so mild as to be almost unnoticeable but I pay pretty close attention down there and am kind of an STD hypochondriac, so I really believe that was my first outbreak.

What are my chances of giving her type 2 if she doesn't already have it (assuming she wants to continue sleeping with me...)? I've read you say 4%/yr doing nothing but abstaining during outbreaks, 2% with daily suppressive therapy, and 1% with a condom also. Are those numbers the same going from girl to guy and vice-versa?

Also this is an important question: I understand that I will have asymptomatic shedding a certain percentage of days during the year. Assuming we have sex every day I am not having an outbreak (can you tell I'm an optimist?) that means we will be having sex on days when the virus is shedding. Does this increase her chances of getting it to 100%? Or is it possible to have sex when the virus is shedding and still not get it?

Thank you for all of your help. It is so hard to find good information about this.

Your hsv2 is a low positive but with you having lesions and also your gf having lesions, odds are it really is accurate. it's unfortunate they didn't type your gf's lesion culture. She can repeat her blood test at some point but odds are it's hsv2 since you are hsv2+ and both of you are already hsv1+ .

correct - your gf's blood test is hsv2 - and since you've been together for awhile now, you had it first.

You can get acyclovir at walmart and other places for under $20/month for suppressive therapy even without insurance.

betsy

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ASHA Moderator

Thank you for your response!

I get what you are saying about her probably having HSV2 but until she repeats a blood test (wait 4 months?) that confirms that, I would like to play it on the safe side, and at the very least decrease her risk of getting it.

She got a prescription after her diagnosis but I think I will be taking it instead. It is for 1000mg valtrex once a day. If I am correct the suppression dosage for valtrex is 500mg/day. Can I cut these pills in half?

Also, two quick but very important questions I would like to have answered just to put my math brain at ease:

1) Westover Heights handbook says HSV2 will be shedding 15%-20% of days, this is 54-73 days per year. Is this number for total days of shedding, including during outbreaks? Or is this number days of asymptomatic shedding? Does total days of shedding during the year decrease if you have fewer outbreaks, or does it remain the same, just without symptoms??


2) Even with suppressive therapy I understand there WILL be days when I am shedding, even without symptoms. If we have sex when I am shedding, does this increase her chances of getting it to 100%? Or is it possible to have sex when the virus is shedding and still not get it?

I hope these are worded clearly. Thank you again

So you acknowledge that she has genital herpes from the + lesion culture, just not accepting that it's probably hsv2? Am I understanding that right?


1 - total shedding both with and without obvious lesions.

2 - correct - if she really was hsv2-, she can have sex with you on days when you were actively shedding and not necessarily contract the virus. case in point - odds were you were shedding more than just the time she most likely contracted hsv2 from you and she didn't contract it until recently.


Ask her to call her clinic and have them see if the lab they use still has her lesion culture. typically they freeze it for a few weeks before tossing it. they can still order a typing on it if they have it. quicker answers than assuming you both have different types of genital herpes for 4 months.

otherwise if she isn't going to take suppressive therapy, her next ob she can be seen and insist it's typed but she'll need seen within 48 hours of its appearance and she can't start antivirals until she's had the culture done.

betsy

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ASHA Moderator