I just read an exchange you had with Orange13. She didn't have HSV, but her male partner did. You reviewed the percentage risk of an infected man transmitting the virus to an uninfected woman if no protection (i.e., just no sex during o/b) is used versus if suppressive therapy and condoms are used, which lowers the risk.
The Herpes Handbook explains that an uninfected man's risk of contracting from an infected woman is lower than the reverse. So, can you give me the percentage risk of an infected woman using suppressive therapy giving HSV to unifected man? How does using a condom affect that percentage? I seem to recall the Herpes Handbook saying the risk using nothing in this scenario was 4% over a year, so I'm thinking the risk with protection is pretty low. Please tell me I'm right.
Again, I cannot THANK YOU enough for you tireless efforts to educate us BIG H newbies and provide such loving support! Big hug for you!