Please help me understand what I'm dealing with. I recently went to the gyno for my annual pap and requested a full screening, just to get my bill of good health before starting law school in the fall. I got a call yesterday and my blood test came back negative for HSV1 and positive for HSV2. After hearing the news, I was shocked and in a complete stupor. I didn't ask her the type of test that was used nor the reliability. All I know is that she said the level of my antibodies was reported at 1.4 and that the threshold is 1.09, meaning that I had been "exposed." Which test could this be? And, can you tell me whether this is a reliable test? (Obviously, my test was type-specific, so it wasn't an IgM).
She kept repeating the word "exposed", but not "infected." Is there any difference? Or is that simply the polite terminology to use when someone's learning that their life is being turened upside down?
In December, 2007, I was with a person, several times unprotected, who was not very prudent nor trustworthy. I had a blood test in January, 2008, which indicated negative for both. I thought things were fine. Now, I find out that one needs to wait 3 months after exposure for an accurate result!! I can't understand why our health care practitioners are so obtuse and neglect to tell us this!
Well, I have never had any symptoms in the genital area. In fact, I have had small singular canker sores in my mouth, repeatedly over the past few years, but nothing painful, large or lasting to cause alarm. I would have assumed that any positive test would have been a result of this. But, as I understand it, from the research I have done, HSV2 almost never occurs orally. Right? What are the chances that these scores were somehow reversed? And why is HSV2 always genital, although it appear HSV1 can be either/both.
I will have another test done, just to confirm. Please tell me which test to request, and whether I should wait any period of time before I have it done.
Thank you so much.