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I was just diagnosed with hsv1 genital herpes. My dr. explained that hsv1 is usually oral, and hsv2 is usually genital, but mine is genital hsv1. My husband of 6 years occassionally gets cold sores on his lips. The dr.'s said I must have recently transmitted it through oral sex by my husband when he was shedding. He had no obvious ob and hasn't for over 6 months now.
Now that I've gotten more info on herpes, we found that if you are on sterroid treatment, you can be more likely to have an ob or shedding (if you already have herpes). He was recently affected by poison ivy and given a cortizone shot and a strong dose of prednisone. We are now thinking that this may have been when it was transmitted to me. He has NEVER had any genital ob or anywhere other than on his lip.
My question is... since we both have hsv1, there is no worry now about transmitting it to each other. But, if he has it orally, and I have genital, even though it is the same type, can i end up giving it to him genitally and him giving it to me orally? My dr. said he didn't think so. He said our bodies now have hsv1 antibodies and would likely attack the virus if it was transmitted to another part of the body. He also said that normally ob's happen at the site of initial infection. This means that my reocurrences should happen in the genitals each time?
I am worried about giving my husband genital herpes as this has been the most painful and awful experience I have ever had.
I was diagnosed when i went to a dr. because i thought i had a skin infection as a result of razor burn after brazillian shaving. the dr. said it appeared to be herpes, and i was devastated. i spent the weekend in tears. i feel dirty. I had a follow up with my regular ob/gyn yesterday and he explained many things and answered every question i had. I feel better about my situation today, however, I've still haven't really accepted that I have this virus, yet.
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