Hi,
I don’t have herpes (i’ve been tested several times for both HSV-1 and -2, and have been celibate for several years), but i’m encountering more and more folk who do, and i understand that it’s still a rather mysterious disease; hence, since i’m thinking of re-entering the dating scene soon, i’ve been looking over my notes on herpes and checking websites to see how our knowledge of it has progressed.
I have a few questions, and have given up trying to get through on the ASHA hotline (no fault of yours, of course, but i’ve called literally dozens of times, so i’m trying a different route). (By the way: the hotline voice message says that the hotline operates 8–8 when it should say 8–6.)
First: I’d like to know the credentials of whoever answers my questions. As you probably know, there’s a LOT of misinformation about herpes even among health professionals in America. I’m hoping you folk are abreast of the latest info.
Your webpage â€â€
http://www.ashastd.org/sexualhealth/ask ... herpes.cfm  raises questions that i’ve been wondering about, so i’ll use it as a reference.
ASHA website: “Once you are both infected with the same type of the virus (HSV-2 presumably in your situation), there is no need to use condoms or any other protection from herpes transmission since you cannot give someone ‘more’ herpes infection.â€Â
This raises a few questions for me.
It’s my understanding that until one’s immune response is fully deployed against HSV-1 or -2, one is at risk of being newly infected with
that virus in
another part of one’s body either through autoinoculation or through interaction with someone else carrying
that virus. Is this correct? I ask because some herpes websites claim that the risk of fresh infection with the same virus by autoinoculation or a partner carrying that virus is zero after that virus’ first lesion outbreak, but that’s an unhelpfully vague rule-of-thumb since many folk are so asymptomatic that they don’t realize they have HSV-1 or -2 till years after they’ve contracted it. I know that for blood-test results to mean much in asymptomatic cases the blood must be drawn six months after possible infection because some people produce detectable quantities of type-specific HSV-1 or -2 antibodies within a few weeks of infection, and others take as long as six months. So,
does this also mean that for several weeks to six months after initial infection (with HSV-1 or -2) one is at risk of being infected again with that virus in another part of one’s body either by autoinoculation or by a partner carrying it? (I’m being very careful and redundant with my terminology because i understand that HSV-1 and -2 sometimes birth nearby secondary infections by creeping along nerve paths  which is not the kind of new, fresh, or secondary infection i’m asking about.)
A related question is: What happens when one’s immune system grows chronically compromised due to stress, age, HIV infection, environmental toxins, chemotherapy, etc.? In other words, does a compromised immune system (which eventually happens, one way or another, to everyone) create risk of one’s being infected again with HSV-1 or -2 in another part of one’s body either through autoinoculation or through interaction with someone else carrying that virus? If so, i think it would be helpful for folk to have this possibility in the back of their minds so that they can take precautions against it when their immune systems become compromised. (I know that a compromised immune system tends to increase the frequency and severity of lesion outbreaks  which, i know, is a separate issue, but it does make me wonder about the possibility of multiple infections by the same herpes virus; hence, my question.)
ASHA website: “If you are both infected with genital HSV-2, it is very unlikely that you can acquire HSV-1 genitally from someone else’s mouth during oral sex.â€Â
Why is contracting both HSV-1 and -2 in the same area unlikely? And what if the scenario was reversed, i.e., what if a person already had genital HSV-1; would this mean that contracting genital HSV-2 is unlikely?
ASHA website: “Also, it is difficult to acquire HSV-2 in your mouth from someone else’s genital area that is infected with HSV-2.â€Â
Why is oral HSV-2 so rare when genital HSV-1 is now so common? Traditionally, HSV-1 was always seen in or around the mouth, and HSV-2 in or around the genitals and anus, but the prevalence of oral sex for the last few generations means that we can no longer make this assumption. Our current knowledge of herpes suggests that, in the developed world at least, HSV-1 is now prevalent both orally and genitally; health authorities like the University of Maryland School of Medicine say that HSV-1 causes approximately 50% of genital herpes cases these days. But HSV-2 has not paralleled HSV-1’s migration, i.e., HSV-2 is still primarily found genitally (which is to say, HSV-2
can infect our mouths, but, for some reason unknown to me, rarely does). Which raises the question: Why is oral HSV-2 still so rare? Do we know?
Those are my questions. I’m guessing that others might be interested in the answers, too.
I’m forty years old; hence, i’m meeting (and dating) folk with herpes more often as i age  sadly, i tend to know more about herpes than they do (i mostly fault America’s capitalist health system for that). In any case, i prefer to understand the primary and secondary risks of health choices i’m making (especially when there’s an epidemic). And i’m trying to be an informed sexual citizen for everyone’s sake.
Can you dispel these mysteries for me? Or direct me to someone who can (who won’t charge me a $100)?
Thanks so much for your time and attention,
Ben