Recently my wife of 33 years developed a case of Herpes 1.in the genital area. The diagnosis was confirmed by the associated test. Prior to the Herpes test and for the same reason, she had taken a blood test which indicated that her body had not yet produced white blood cells to fight off the infection.

As I understood our Dr.s explanation. the blood test result was evidence that that the infecting episode had occurred recently, and that there had been no prior infection.

My wife affirmed credibly that she has been completely faithful to me. Moreover, she swears that I am the only person with whom she has had sex.

When I underwent the same test, my results did come back positive for Herpes. (To be specific, I had no active infection and according to our Dr. all my positive results demonstrated was that I had been exposed to the virus at some point in my life and not necessarily sexually) However, I too have been faithful to my wife during our 33 years of marriage. Although, several years before our marriage I did have a one "night stand" with someone who performed oral sex on me.

I should also explain that I have never had a sexual disease related outbreak of any kind. Not even after my wife's infection.

I have taken responsibility for my wife's infection, since it appears that I am the most likely suspect of the two.

Our Dr. believes it would be highly unlikely, but not totally impossible, that I could have been the source, given the length of the virus' dormancy (33+ years) without any previous sign.

While I would prefer to be the guilty party in this mystery, I occassionally have my doubts. I wonder how is it possible that after 33 years of marriage (including two children) and having made love more than 3,000 times, there have been no previous outbreaks?

How unusual is our case?

Can you provide words of
wisdom?

Thanks

Ok, so how should I interpret the lack of responses thus far? Has this stumped everyone? I would love some feedback.

One possibility if you wife is positive for HSV-1, it could be you also harbor HSV-1 as either a genital or, more likely, oral infection (think cold sores) that was only recently given to her, through either intercourse or oral sex. I don't know if this really explains her situation, but it's plausible.

Kind of hard to assume infidelity based only on the results listed in your posting, I have to say. How is she doing?

Fredo

_________________
ASHA Moderator

Fredo,

Thank for your response. Since my last posting I have receieved confirmation that it was most likely me the one who introduced the HSV-1 infection. Frankly, this si the outcome I was hoping for, since I know there was no infidelity involved.

Thanks again

i am new to this forum and came accross this entry which caught my eye because it very closely resembles mine. Except I am not yet convinced i am the culprit. After all, how likely is it that a Herpes 1 infection would remain invisible without any symptoms whatsoever for over 30 yesrs.

Assuming the he is telling te truth aboutt being faithful for over 30 years and all things beubg eqwhat are the odds that he would be the one?

Hi babalu,

I don't know your story but as a general thing I can tell you that herpes is tricky to nail down in terms of the "who and when" questions go. Most cases either have no symptoms, mild symptoms, or symptoms that mimic other conditions and are confusing. If you can provide more details, I'll try and give a better answer!

Fredo

_________________
ASHA Moderator