I have a question that my doctor says he can't answer, which is causing me extreme mental anguish. I was tested the first time for HPV in Oct. 2006 with my annual pap (routine part of annual now): tested negative for HPV & abnormal cells. In Dec. 2007 I was tested again for HPV & tested positive. Also tested positive for HPV in Nov. 2008. No cell abnormality in PAP in any test & I have never had any symptoms of HPV (no warts, etc..). I've been married for 18 years & I've never stepped out on my husband. My husband did cheat on me in Feb. 1997, so needless to say, this positive after a negative has me completely on the edge. My questions are:
1) Since I tested negative for HPV in 2006, then tested positive in 2007 & 2008, is it fair to say I have been exposed to the HPV within the past few years?
2) If yes cannot be applied to question #1, then is it possible I could have been exposed to HPV in 1997, test negative in 2006, then positive in 2007 & 2008?
3) What would be the odds of question #2 being yes?
My doctor has known me for a while, delivered my twins 6 years ago with high-risk so I saw him every other day for about 3 months while I lived in the hospital. For the first time in our communications, my doctor wouldn't look at me in the face when I asked the above questions. His reply was: "I can't answer those questions" I am deeply troubled as a result.
I need answers, and I can handle whatever they are. I've checked all over the internet for the past year or so & can't find anything relating to a NEGATIVE TEST, THEN POSITIVE TEST with exposure information. The forums & info sites always talk about how long you can incubate the virus before the symptoms, which I have never had. I am hoping desperately to get some answers here.