This is a long one but please i need help urgently.
I had a full sexual health test in May 08. All results including Chlamydia, were negative, except for scanty ureaplasma urealyticum which was treated. I never engaged in any sexual intercourse until November 08 and with a new partner, who is very fastidious about being careful. He also made me aware that he did regular sexual health checks to make sure he is clear. We did not engage in unprotected sex at first but later succumbed to it sometimes in Dec 08.
We had unprotected sex regularly but the last time we ever had sex, including oral, was in Feb 09. My partner recently had a full sexual health test in early March 09, because he was concerned we were having unprotected sex, he claimed. All results were negative. This spurred me on to have one done too in late March 09. All my results came back negative except for chlamydia, which was positive. I was shattered as I'd never had an STI before, apart from thrush. I got treated immediately with Azithromycin 1g stat, one week after the result.
My first instinct was to confront him for giving me chlamydia as I was sure i didn't have before we met but i let it go because he already told me he tested negative for everything. I told him about my result and he was shocked. We have not had any sex (well, i haven't) together since Feb 09. I told him to have a retest but he doesn't see any reason to do so. I am so adamant that he must since it was only him I'd had sex with. I even suggested he took the medication anyway irrespective of the previous result but again, he's not really concerned.
Here's my question: How could he have tested negative and me positive? Did he give it to me anyhow, granted that i never had sex with anyone else since i'd been with him? Could it be that he tested positive, got treated and encouraged me to do the same?
We are going away together soon but i need these questions answered for my sanity check.
Please help me.