Recently my wife of 33 years developed a case of Herpes 1.in the genital area. The diagnosis was confirmed by the associated test. Prior to the Herpes test and for the same reason, she had taken a blood test which indicated that her body had not yet produced white blood cells to fight off the infection.
As I understood our Dr.s explanation. the blood test result was evidence that that the infecting episode had occurred recently, and that there had been no prior infection.
My wife affirmed credibly that she has been completely faithful to me. Moreover, she swears that I am the only person with whom she has had sex.
When I underwent the same test, my results did come back positive for Herpes. (To be specific, I had no active infection and according to our Dr. all my positive results demonstrated was that I had been exposed to the virus at some point in my life and not necessarily sexually) However, I too have been faithful to my wife during our 33 years of marriage. Although, several years before our marriage I did have a one "night stand" with someone who performed oral sex on me.
I should also explain that I have never had a sexual disease related outbreak of any kind. Not even after my wife's infection.
I have taken responsibility for my wife's infection, since it appears that I am the most likely suspect of the two.
Our Dr. believes it would be highly unlikely, but not totally impossible, that I could have been the source, given the length of the virus' dormancy (33+ years) without any previous sign.
While I would prefer to be the guilty party in this mystery, I occassionally have my doubts. I wonder how is it possible that after 33 years of marriage (including two children) and having made love more than 3,000 times, there have been no previous outbreaks?
How unusual is our case?
Can you provide words of
Last edited by Ciboney on Wed Feb 25, 2009 8:05 am, edited 1 time in total.